- Original Poster
- #1
Hi,
I've become stuck in the middle of a disagreement between an employee in my team (I'm their line manager) and our HR department/director, regarding the employees holiday entitlement. They are a part-time employee, who has previously (for at least the past five and a half years) been granted annual leave above the prorated quantity of a full time employee. This was communicated to them by the HR department and my predecessor, and records show this has been the holiday granted/taken/paid. The standard/full-time working week is 37.5 hours (7.5hrs/day), full-time employees receive 33 days per year (25 + 8 bank holidays), equating to 247.5hrs.
The employee in question works 35 hours per week (early finish one day), the holiday entitlement granted to them has been 236.25hrs, whereas prorating the 33 days granted to full-timers would give them 231hrs (as they work just over 93% of a full time week).
I'm not privy to exactly what is stated in their written contract, but am I correct that because the above arrangement (extra hours) has been in place for at least six years this would "trump" what is in their written contract? HR (plus an external advisor) are saying the 231hours is legal, but don't seem to have considered any implied terms.
Thanks in advance...
I've become stuck in the middle of a disagreement between an employee in my team (I'm their line manager) and our HR department/director, regarding the employees holiday entitlement. They are a part-time employee, who has previously (for at least the past five and a half years) been granted annual leave above the prorated quantity of a full time employee. This was communicated to them by the HR department and my predecessor, and records show this has been the holiday granted/taken/paid. The standard/full-time working week is 37.5 hours (7.5hrs/day), full-time employees receive 33 days per year (25 + 8 bank holidays), equating to 247.5hrs.
The employee in question works 35 hours per week (early finish one day), the holiday entitlement granted to them has been 236.25hrs, whereas prorating the 33 days granted to full-timers would give them 231hrs (as they work just over 93% of a full time week).
I'm not privy to exactly what is stated in their written contract, but am I correct that because the above arrangement (extra hours) has been in place for at least six years this would "trump" what is in their written contract? HR (plus an external advisor) are saying the 231hours is legal, but don't seem to have considered any implied terms.
Thanks in advance...
